BIS 2A OLI QUESTIONS

Which molecule makes up the bulk of a cell’s membrane?

A. Proteins
B. Phospholipid
C. Polysachharides
D. Monosaccharides

B. Phospholipid
Trans fats occur when _______________________.

A. unsaturated fatty acids are hydrogenated in the lab to produce saturated fatty acids
B. saturated fatty acids are hydrogenated in the lab to produce unsaturated fatty acids
C. plants produce saturated fatty acids
D. animals produce unsaturated fatty acids

A. unsaturated fatty acids are hydrogenated in the lab to produce saturated fatty acids
Which lipid provides a water protective layer on the surface of some animals and plants?

A. phospholipids
B. waxes
C. triglycerides
D. steroids

B. waxes
Which cell structure is made mostly of phospholipids?

A. cytosol
B. chromosomes
C. ribosomes
D. membranes

D. membranes
Which lipid is mainly used for energy storage?

A. phospholipids
B. steroids
C. triglycerides
D. waxes

C. triglycerides
All of the following have an effect on the fluidity of a membrane except:

A. the ratio of saturated to unsaturated fatty acids
B. the cholesterol content
C. the presence of integral proteins in the membrane
D. interactions among fatty acids in the core of the bilayer

C. the presence of integral proteins in the membrane
Which substance would be most likely to pass through a lipid bilayer/plasma membrane without embedded proteins?

A. a large fatty acid
B. a steroid hormone
C. water
D. a sodium ion
E. a large peptide hormone

B. a steroid hormone
A set of erythrocytes is placed in a beaker of 0.9% NaCl. Nothing appears to happen to the cells. Why?

A. 0.9% NaCl is hypertonic to the cells.
B. 0.9% NaCl is iostonic to the cells.
C. Sodium blocks the movement of water.
D. 0.9% NaCl is hypotonic to the cells.
E. water has not moved at all.

B. 0.9% NaCl is iostonic to the cells.
Which of the following can cross the cell’s plasma membrane without the assistance of protein transporters? Select all that apply.

A. large polar molecules
B. positively charged ions
C. small hydrophobic molecules
D. gasses

C. small hydrophobic molecules
D. gasses
What is the role of carbohydrates in the plasma membrane?

A. help maintain fluidity
B. cellular identification
C. adhesion
D. transport materials across the membrane

B. cellular identification
Biological Membranes are:

A. dynamic.
B. symmetrical.
C. static.
D. impermeable.

A. dynamic.
Which component of the plasma membrane has the widest variety of functions?

A. sterols
B. carbohydrates
C. phospholipids
D. proteins

D. proteins
How does the selective permeability of the membrane help the cell?

A. This allows the cell to maintain the proper shape.
B. This allows the cell to regulate what enters and exits
C. This allows the cell to maintain a constant temperature.
D. All of these

B. This allows the cell to regulate what enters and exits
If a cell is not dividing, and has not yet begun replicating its DNA what phase of the cell cycle would it be in?

A. G2
B. G1
C. M
D. S

B. G1
All of the following pairings between a cell cycle phase and what happens during it are correct, except

A. G1- the cell is growing and increasing its mass
B. M- the cell is undergoing mitosis
C. G2- the cell is preparing to divide
D. S- the cell is dividing
E. G0- the cell is mature and does not cycle anymore.

D. S- the cell is dividing
If a germ cell has 20 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will you find in the daughter cells, after meiosis?

A. 40
B. 30
C. 20
D. 10

D. 10
DNA that is tightly wound around histone proteins is the easiest to divide. Is this statement true or false?

True
False

TRUE
If a somatic cell has 24 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will you find in the daughter cells, after mitosis?

36
12
24
48

24
he products of MITOSIS are:

A. Four genetically identical cells
B. Two genetically identical cells
C. Two genetically unique cells
D. Four genetically unique cells

B. Two genetically identical cells
Imagine a hypothetical organism (critter). A DIPLOID cell from this organism has 20 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be found in a HAPLOID GAMETE of this organism?

20
46
40
10

10
Imagine a hypothetical organism (critter). A DIPLOID cell from this organism has 20 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be found in a GERM CELL of this organism?
40
10
20
46
20
If you found a single cell with two nuclei, what explanation might be true?

A. Mitosis must have happened twice!!
B. Cytokinesis occurred without mitosis!
C. Mitosis occurred without cytokinesis!
D. The cell remained in interphase continuously!

C. Mitosis occurred without cytokinesis!
DNA that is tightly wound around histone proteins is the easiest to replicate. Is this statement true or false?

True
False

FALSE
Which of the following tasks is accomplished through the process of mitosis?

A. Replacement of dysfunctional cells
B. Production of sperm or eggs
C. Cell growth

A. Replacement of dysfunctional cells
Cancer can be the result of all of the following EXCEPT?

A. A disregulation of the cell cycle.
B. A non-functional tumor suppressor gene and a non-functional proto-oncogene.
C. A functional tumor suppressor gene and a functional proto-oncogene.
D. Exposure to a carcinogen.

C. A functional tumor suppressor gene and a functional proto-oncogene.
Mitosis results in ________ and meiosis results in ________.

A. gametes, somatic cells
B. gametes, gametes
C. somatic cells, gametes
D. somatic cells, somatic cells

C. somatic cells, gametes
A child with Down Syndrome has 3 copies of chromosome 21 (trisomy 21). Which statement could be true in regards to this child?

A. All these answers could be true.
B. One gamete had 2 copies of chromosome 21 and the other gamete had 1 copy.
C. None of these answers could be true.
D. The egg could have had 2 copies of chromosome 21.
E. The sperm could have had 2 copies of chromosome 21.

A. All these answers could be true.
Mitosis results in ______ cells and meiosis results in _______ cells.

A. diploid, diploid
B. diploid, haploid
C. haploid, haploid
D. haploid, diploid

B. diploid, haploid
What advantage does sexual reproduction have over asexual reproduction?

A. All other selections are true.
B. Sexual reproduction provides more genetic variability
C. Sexual reproduction is more efficient
D. Sexual reproduction doubles the number of chromosomes in a species

B. Sexual reproduction provides more genetic variability
What is the purpose of meiosis?

A. To allow for growth
B. To enable an organism to produce gametes
C. To allow an organism to replace damaged cells

B. To enable an organism to produce gametes
Cats have a diploid number of 38. How many chromosomes are in a cat egg?

24
76
38
19

19
Which of the following tasks is accomplished through the process of meiosis?

A. Replacement of dysfunctional cells
B. Cell growth
C. Production of sperm or eggs

C. Production of sperm or eggs
Crossing over occurs between homologous chromosomes during what stage of cell division? (Read each option carefully.)

A. Prophase I of meiosis
B. Prophase of mitosis
C. Interphase
D. Prophase II of meiosis

A. Prophase I of meiosis
Homologous chromosomes separate and are pulled to opposite sides of the cell during what stage of cell division? (Read each option carefully.)

A. Anaphase I of meiosis
B. Anaphase II of meiosis
C. Metaphase I of meiosis
D. Anaphase of mitosis

A. Anaphase I of meiosis
Corn has 20 chromosomes. When corn undergoes meiosis how many chromosomes are found in the gametes?

40
20
10
5

10
An individual that expresses the dominant trait of a dominant/recessive gene

A. must be homozygous
B. must be heterozygous
C. can be either homozygous or heterozygous

C. can be either homozygous or heterozygous
Which relationship is correct?

A. Phenotype is to protein as DNA is to genotype.
B. Protein is to genotype as DNA is to phenotype.
C. Protein is to phenotype as DNA is to genotype.
D. Protein is to phenotype as genotype is to DNA.

C. Protein is to phenotype as DNA is to genotype.
Which of the following is true of dominant traits?

A. They are more common in a population.
B. They are expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous individuals.
C. They are evolutionarily favorable.
D. They are expressed only in homozygous dominant individuals

B. They are expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous individuals.
Alleles are different versions of a _______________.

A. chromosome
B. genotype
C. phenotype
D. gene

D. gene
Homologous pairs of chromosomes line up at the center of the cell in during which stage of meiosis?

A. Metaphase I
B. Metaphase II
C. Telophase I
D. Telophase II

A. Metaphase I
How many copies of each gene does a diploid organism have?

2
1
4
3

2
Homozygous is a term that can describe a(n) _____________.

A. heterozygous
B. allele
C. genotype
D. phenotype

C. genotype
Two heterozygous individuals have mated. How many different genotypes can be present in the offspring?

1
2
3
4

3
A haploid organism has how many copies of each chromosome?

1
2
3
4

1
The sister chromatids separate during which stage of meiosis?

A. Anaphase I
B. Anaphase II
C. Prophase I
D. Prophase II

B. Anaphase II
How many different gametes are produced by a cell with the genotype AABb?

1
2
3
4

1
Peter gets his blood tested and finds out that he is B+. This test identified a

A. DNA
B. Genotype
C. Phenotype
D. Chromosome

C. Phenotype
Linked genes: _______________________________.

A. have related phenotypes
B. are alleles of each other
C. sort independently of each other
D. are found on the same chromosome

D. are found on the same chromosome
A homozygous dominant germ cell undergoes meiosis. The gametes will _________________________.

A. either have the dominant or the recessive allele
B. only have the recessive allele
C. only have the dominant allele
D. have both the dominant or the recessive allele

C. only have the dominant allele
How many phosphate groups does ATP have?

1
2
3
4

3
Does the DNA in the skin cell have the same backbone as DNA in the brain cell of the same organism?

A. No, the backbones will be different in each cell type.
B. Yes, the backbones of DNA are different for each person, but within the organism – they are the same in all cells.
C. No, the backbones will be different because of mutations.
D. Yes, all backbones of ALL DNA molecules are the same.

D. Yes, all backbones of ALL DNA molecules are the same.
Which of these is NOT a difference between DNA and RNA?

A. DNA tends to be double stranded, while RNA tends to be single stranded
B. RNA uses the base thymine while DNA uses the base uracil.
C. DNA uses the sugar deoxyribose while RNA uses the sugar ribose.
D. All of these are differences between DNA and RNA.

B. RNA uses the base thymine while DNA uses the base uracil.
Detergents are ______________.

A. polar
B. nonpolar
C. both polar and nonpolar
D. neither polar nor nonpolar

C. both polar and nonpolar
Which of the following molecules is hydrophobic?

A. olive oil
B. food coloring
C. table salt

A. olive oil
Which groups of macromolecules are used by humans for energy storage?

A. All of these macromolecules are used for energy storage.
B. Nucleotides
C. Lipids
D. Carbohydrates
E. None these macromolecules are used for energy storage.

A. All of these macromolecules are used for energy storage.
-Nucleotides, lipids, carbohydrates
What is the end result of DNA replication?

A. Two DNA molecules each both have two new strands.
B. Two DNA molecules which each have one old strand and one new strand.
C. Two DNA molecules one with two old strands and one with two new strands.
D. Two DNA molecules which each have two new strands and two old strands.

B. Two DNA molecules which each have one old strand and one new strand.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Both DNA replication and PCR use a DNA template.
B. Both DNA replication and PCR use DNA polymerase.
C. Both DNA replication and PCR use helicase.
D. Both DNA replication and PCR use primers.

C. Both DNA replication and PCR use helicase.
In which of the following organisms is it necessary to transport the mRNA across a membrane prior to protein synthesis. Select all that apply.

A. Animals
B. Plants
C. Bacteria
D. Viruses

Animals
Plants
Which part of the nucleotide stores the genetic information?

A. Deoxyribose
B. Phosphate group
C. Nitrogen base
D. Ribose

C. Nitrogen base
The order of amino acids in proteins depends on the order of bases in the DNA.

True
False

TRUE
What process is responsible for creating distinct sets of proteins in skin cell compared to brain cell?

A. Gene Expression
B. DNA Mutation
C. DNA Replication
D. Base Titration

A. Gene Expression
Skin cells perform very different functions compared to brain cells. On the molecular level, what makes skin cells different from brain cells in the same organism?

A. Proteins
B. pH
C. ATP
D. DNA

A. Proteins
During DNA replication, it is possible for the T residue in the template strand to form two hydrogen bonds with a T base on the new strand. This doesn’t normally occur because:

A. The normal A-T base pairing uses 3 hydrogen bonds, so it will be preferred.
B. DNA polymerase cannot incorporate T into the newly synthesized strands.
C. The T-T basepair contains two of the smaller sized bases.
D. The two T-T hydrogen bonds will be weaker than the two hydrogen bonds between an A-T pair.

C. The T-T basepair contains two of the smaller sized bases.
Does the DNA in the skin cell have the same sequence of bases as the DNA in the brain cell of the same organism?

A. Yes, the sequence of ALL DNA is the same.
B. No, some cells will have mom’s DNA, other cells will have dad’s DNA.
C. No, the DNA sequence will vary based on cell type.
D. Yes, the sequence of bases should be the same in all cells of an organism.

D. Yes, the sequence of bases should be the same in all cells of an organism.
Consider this DNA strand: 5′ GTTTTAGGAG 3′. The complementary strand, 5′ to 3′ will be:

A. 5-CTCCTAAAAC-3
B. 5-GUUUUTGGTC-3
C. 5-GAGGATTTTG-3
D. 5-CAAAATCCTC-3
E. 5-CUUUUTCCTC-3

E. 5-CUUUUTCCTC-3
If radioactive nucleotide bases were provided to bacteria during DNA synthesis, then after cell division you would find:

A. Neither would be radioactive because DNA polymerase can distinguish between isotopes.
B. One bacteria would be radioactive and the other not.
C. Both bacteria would be equally radioactive.

C. Both bacteria would be equally radioactive.
Identify the flow of genetic information during protein synthesis in a eukaryotic Cell.

A. mRNA moves a protein to the DNA and makes a copy of the DNA through translation.
B. DNA makes a copy of itself which is transported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm by a chain of amino acids.
C. Transcription produces an mRNA molecule in the nucleus. The mRNA moves to the cytoplasm where translation occurs.
D. Translation produces a tRNA molecule in the nucleus; the tRNA transports a protein to the cytoplasm of the cell.

C. Transcription produces an mRNA molecule in the nucleus. The mRNA moves to the cytoplasm where translation occurs.
When a cell is getting ready to divide into two cells (during the process of mitosis), which process must first happen so that the entire genome can be passed to the new daughter cells?

A. transcription
B. DNA replication
C. PCR
D. translation

B. DNA replication
Which of the following mutations would not be noticeable when studying the expressed traits (or proteins) of an organism?

A. frameshift
B. nonsense
C. missense
D. silent

D. silent
Which of the following statements is correct regarding DNA replication, PCR, and transcription?

A. All three processes happen in the cell naturally.
B. Both DNA replication and PCR use DNA polymerases.
C. All three processes require primers.
D. All three processes result in a double stranded product.

B. Both DNA replication and PCR use DNA polymerases.
Which of the RNA molecules can best be described as a copy of the gene that codes for a protein? (This RNA molecule carries the genetic information necessary to build a protein)

A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. all of these

A. mRNA
A gene codes for a protein that is 500 amino acids long. Which of the following mutations is likely to be the most deleterious?

A. a missense mutation at the 490th codon
B. a missense mutation at the fifth codon
C. a nonsense mutation at the 490th codon
D. a nonsense mutation at the fifth codon

D. a nonsense mutation at the fifth codon
Which nitrogen base is not found on nucleotides used to build the new molecule in transcription?

A. C
B. U
C. A
D. G
E. T

E. T
Transcription produces:

A. Proteins from an RNA template
B. DNA from a DNA template
C. RNA from a DNA template
D. Proteins from a DNA template

C. RNA from a DNA template
A gene codes for a protein that is 500 amino acids long. A nonsense mutation occurs at the 6th codon. What is the result?

A. A polypeptide that has a different amino acid at position 6.
B. A polypeptide that has the correct amino acids for the first 5 position, and then incorrect amino acids after that.
C. A polypeptide that is 5 amino acids long.
D. A polypeptide that is missing the 6th amino acid.

C. A polypeptide that is 5 amino acids long.
At what point in the cell cycle will eukaryotic DNA be most condensed (tightly packaged)?

A. G2 phase
B. S phase
C. M phase
D. G0 phase
E. G1 phase

C. M phase
The start codon signals the start of ___________________.

A. Transcription
B. Replication
C. Translation

C. Translation
Circular DNA exists in which type of cell?

A. Only in Prokaryotic
B. Only in Eukaryotic
C. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

C. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Assuming that the genes required for sucrose (table sugar) degradation are contained within an operon, then under conditions of low sucrose, you would expect:

A. The repressor protein to bind to the operator, allowing transcription.
B. The repressor protein to bind to the operator, preventing transcription.
C. The repressor protein released from the operator, preventing transcription.
D. The repressor protein released from the operator, allowing transcription.

B. The repressor protein to bind to the operator, preventing transcription.
Which of the following represents a change that CANNOT be passed on to the next generation?

A. Changes in gene expression due to increased production of a hormone.
B. Changes in DNA packaging leading to gene silencing.
C. Changes in DNA sequence due to exposure to radiation.
D. None of the above, they are all heritable changes.

A. Changes in gene expression due to increased production of a hormone.
In what type of cell do genes contain exons which are interrupted by introns, that are spliced out after transcription.

A. Prokaryotic
B. Eukaryotic
C. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

B. Eukaryotic
Which of the following terms describes the macromolecule that carries genetic information?

A. DNA
B. Allele
C. Gene
D. Chromosome

A. DNA
CRP protein binds to the lac operon under conditions of low glucose. Its role in the expression of genes in the lac operon is:

A. to transcribe DNA to mRNA for the structural genes in the operator.
B. It increases the binding of lactose to the lac repressor, causing it to be released from the operator.
C. It enhances the binding of RNA polymerase to the lac operon, increasing transcription
D. It bumps the lac repressor off the DNA, allowing transcription of the genes for lactose metabolism.

C. It enhances the binding of RNA polymerase to the lac operon, increasing transcription
What is a promoter?

A. It’s a protein that promotes transcription
B. It’s a region of DNA that binds DNA polymerase to begin replication.
C. It’s a region of DNA that binds RNA polymerase to begin transcription
D. It’s a region of RNA that binds ribosome to begin protein synthesis.

C. It’s a region of DNA that binds RNA polymerase to begin transcription
Eukaryotic DNA is packaged into nucleosomes due to the action of

A. repressor proteins
B. DNA helicases
C. RNA polymerases
D. histones

D. histones
When bacteria are grown in lactose they produce enzymes required for lactose metabolism. When placed in glucose, these enzymes are no longer produced. The expression of these genes is likely due to:

A. mutations accumulated in the regulatory region of the gene that code for lactose metabolizing enzymes.
B. Changing the behavior of a DNA binding protein that regulates expression of these genes.
C. Uncondensing of the DNA, to allow for expression of the genes.

B. Changing the behavior of a DNA binding protein that regulates expression of these genes.
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